Math question
NTTAWWT





Joined: January 27, 2007
Posts: 14,456
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From: That town you drive through to get to Myrtle Beach
OK, math heads, explain why, when dividing 6 by 1/3, the answer is 18. Don't show me the math - explain it as you would to a 4th grader. Remember, it has to make sense to a kid. No math, just an explanation.
I know why - I just want see how good you math heads are with explanations. Guess what I do Monday - Friday.
I know why - I just want see how good you math heads are with explanations. Guess what I do Monday - Friday.
its like a double negitive....you are divding by a division...this is the same as multiplying.....I know its not very clear...but I got the point.
finite.
ok, if I'm counting right there's 14 ways for two people to sit adjacently in six desks in 2 rows, forwards and backwards. Out of 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 720 possible arrangements, 14/720 ~ .01944 so 1.9 %
oops, I see that there was only one row,
That should be 10 ways of arranging the two, still 720 possible seating combinations, so 1 in 72?
I counter from a friend's homework, don't nobody feel silly bein scared've this one, its senior calculus in a quantum mechanics problem.
ahem.
Use a taylor polynomial to show that the Rayleigh-Jeans equation (intensity=2(pi)ckT/(wavelength)^4) {where c is the speed pf light, k is boltzman's constant, and T is the absolute temperature in kelvin}, gives approximately the same values as Planck's law (intensity= (2(pi)c^2)/(wavelength)^5 x h/(e^(hc/[(wavelength)kT])-1) {where h is planck's constant} for large wavelengths.
These two formulas can be found at
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rayleigh-Jeans_law
oops, I see that there was only one row,
That should be 10 ways of arranging the two, still 720 possible seating combinations, so 1 in 72?
I counter from a friend's homework, don't nobody feel silly bein scared've this one, its senior calculus in a quantum mechanics problem.
ahem.
Use a taylor polynomial to show that the Rayleigh-Jeans equation (intensity=2(pi)ckT/(wavelength)^4) {where c is the speed pf light, k is boltzman's constant, and T is the absolute temperature in kelvin}, gives approximately the same values as Planck's law (intensity= (2(pi)c^2)/(wavelength)^5 x h/(e^(hc/[(wavelength)kT])-1) {where h is planck's constant} for large wavelengths.
These two formulas can be found at
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rayleigh-Jeans_law
Speaking of which
I was staring at some incomprehensible equations today, and thought of you guys. I can't begin to type them here, but you can "look inside" my textbook on amazon.com
http://www.amazon.com/Modern-Supersy...3849758&sr=8-6
http://www.amazon.com/Modern-Supersy...3849758&sr=8-6
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